Re: [Harp-L] Why or how does the major scale equation work?

[Seth Galitzer <sethgali@xxxxxxxxx>]

If I remember correctly, western music is based on the ancient Greek 
ideals of balance and harmony.  One web article I found attributed the 
divisions of the Major Scale to Pythagoras, which sounds credible.  I 
imagine if you were to compare the waveforms of the individual pitches 
you will find some congruity, which would contribute to why we think it 
"sounds good".  The Greek history also explains where the names of the 
modes comes from.  The same source goes on to say that the use of the 
Major Scale was formalized by the Church in the Middle Ages and 
Renaissance periods which has kept it in the forefront of modern Western 
music.

So why do we use it in this hemisphere?  Because our Greek ancestors 
decided the arrangement was the most harmonious to the human ear, and 
the Church agreed.  So far, Western musicians still think so (modern 
atonal composers notwithstanding).

Seth

michael rubin wrote:
> Early on  I teach my students about half steps and whole steps and
> that the do re mi fa so la ti do major scale can be played by
> beginning on any  note on the keyboard and then moving up a whole step
> followed by a whole, half, whole, whole, whole, half.
>
> My new student asked me why or how does it work.  I did my best
> explanation but felt I came up short.  What say the physics guys or
> anyone with a good explanation?
> Thanks,
> Michael Rubin
> Michaelrubinharmonica.com

--
Seth Galitzer

The beatings will continue until morale has improved.